Ready to Tackle the CS0-003 Exam? Build Your Cybersecurity Know-How with Our Reliable Dumps
As cyberattacks increase—ransomware attacks alone cost companies $20 billion in 2023, according to Cybersecurity Ventures—the demand for keen cybersecurity analysts is soaring. The CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) CS0-003 exam, launched on June 6, 2023, is your chance to demonstrate you can tackle these threats proactively. Whether you're a fresh IT pro to security or an analyst looking to up the game, this certification indicates that you can assess threats, protect systems, and respond to incidents—crucial in the vast growing virtual world.
It’s a clear test of your expertise, but with Dumpsgenious CS0-003 braindumps—loaded with accurate practice questions—and some hands-on work, you’ll be well-prepared to pass. We’re here to guide you every step—grab our exam dumps PDF and kickstart your success today!
What Makes the CS0-003 Certification Valuable?
This credential confirms you’ve got the skills to dig into cyber threats and protect networks, bridging the gap between basic security (like Security+) and advanced roles (like PenTest+). Rolled out in mid-2023, it’s tailored for today’s hybrid and cloud-heavy environments, a must as CompTIA’s 2024 IT Outlook notes a 22% jump in analyst roles since 2022. It’s ideal for IT support staff, junior analysts, or admins ready to specialize, offering a vendor-neutral edge that fits anywhere—government, healthcare, or tech firms—and meets U.S. DoD 8570 standards.
Understanding the Exam: Essential Details
Here’s the rundown, based on CompTIA’s official site and Pearson VUE as
Aspect
Details
Time
165 minutes (2 hours, 45 minutes)
Questions
Up to 85 (multiple-choice, performance-based)
Passing Score
750/900 (roughly 83%)
Cost
$392 (retake $392; discounts via CompTIA)
Delivery
Online proctored or Pearson VUE centers
Good to Know:
• Suggests Security+ or equivalent knowledge, plus 4 years of hands-on security experience.
• Valid for 3 years—renew with 60 CEUs (e.g., training, certs) or retake the latest version.
Our CS0-003 Practice Tests from Dumpsgenious align with this structure, offering real exam questions to streamline your prep.
Looking Back: CS0-003 vs. CS0-002
The CS0-003 replaced CS0-002 on June 6, 2023. Here’s how they compare:
LAUNCH
October 2020
June 6, 2023
QUESTIONS
Up to 85
Up to 85
TIME
165 minutes
165 minutes
PASSING SCORE
750/900
750/900
FOCUS
Core threat analysis
Advanced cloud, automation
CS0-003 puts more emphasis on contemporary threats. Our dumps pdf covers everything for you. So you do not worry while using our study material.
What’s Covered? Core Exam Topics
The exam tests four key domains, per CompTIA’s 2025 objectives:
Area
Weight
What It Includes
Security Operations
33%
Threat hunting, vuln management, SIEM
Vulnerability Management
30%
Assessing risks, remediation
Incident Response
20%
Detection, containment, recovery
Reporting & Communication
17%
Risk reporting, stakeholder updates
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With up to 85 questions in 165 minutes, staying on track matters—Security Operations’ 33% weight means precision is key. Our CS0-003 Exam Dumps from Dumpsgenious lighten the load:
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• Realistic Practice: Questions mirror the exam—multiple-choice and PBQs.
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• Our dumps explain—focus: on severity—and guide you through it. Plenty have passed with Dumpsgenious—you’re next!
Career Boost: Jobs and Pay After Passing
Passing this exam fuels cybersecurity paths
Role
Yearly Pay (2025 Est.)
Cybersecurity Analyst
$100,000–$130,000
SOC Analyst
$90,000–$115,000
Threat Hunter
$105,000–$135,000
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The CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst CS0-003 exam is your shot to show you can safeguard systems in a threat-filled world. Labs give you practice, and guides provide structure, but our CS0-003 practice dumps from Dumpsgenious offer a direct route to hitting the passing rate on your first go. At this time in the digital world, it’s a solid move—don’t lose your chance! grab our exam dumps, build your skills, and help shape a safer digital future.
CompTIA CS0-003 Sample Question Answers
Question # 1
An analyst is evaluating a vulnerability management dashboard. The analyst sees that apreviously remediated vulnerability has reappeared on a database server. Which of thefollowing is the most likely cause?
A. The finding is a false positive and should be ignored.
B. A rollback had been executed on the instance.
C. The vulnerability scanner was configured without credentials.
D. The vulnerability management software needs to be updated.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A rollback had been executed on the instance. If a database server is restored to a
previous state, it may reintroduce a vulnerability that was previously fixed. This can happen
due to backup and recovery operations, configuration changes, or software updates. A
rollback can undo the patching or mitigation actions that were applied to remediate the
vulnerability. References: Vulnerability Remediation: It’s Not Just Patching, Section: The
Remediation Process; Vulnerability assessment for SQL Server, Section: Remediation
Question # 2
A security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integratingsecurity controls into a SIEM. The analyst no longer had to jump between tools. Which ofthe following best describes what the security program did?
A. Data enrichment
B. Security control plane
C. Threat feed combination
D. Single pane of glass
Answer: D
Explanation: A single pane of glass is a term that describes a unified view or interface that
integrates multiple tools or data sources into one dashboard or console. A single pane of
glass can help improve security operations by providing visibility, correlation, analysis, and
alerting capabilities across various security controls and systems. A single pane of glass
can also help reduce complexity, improve efficiency, and enhance decision making for
security analysts. In this case, a security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement
in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM, which provides a single pane of glass
An incident response team found IoCs in a critical server. The team needs to isolate andcollect technical evidence for further investigation. Which of the following pieces of datashould be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating theserver?
A. Hard disk
B. Primary boot partition
C. Malicious tiles
D. Routing table
E. Static IP address
Answer: A
Explanation: The hard disk is the piece of data that should be collected first in order to
preserve sensitive information before isolating the server. The hard disk contains all the
files and data stored on the server, which may include evidence of malicious activity, such
as malware installation, data exfiltration, or configuration changes. The hard disk should be
collected using proper forensic techniques, such as creating an image or a copy of the disk
and maintaining its integrity using hashing algorithms.
Question # 4
A company has a primary control in place to restrict access to a sensitive database.However, the company discovered an authentication vulnerability that could bypass thiscontrol. Which of the following is the best compensating control?
A. Running regular penetration tests to identify and address new vulnerabilities
B. Conducting regular security awareness training of employees to prevent socialengineering attacks
C. Deploying an additional layer of access controls to verify authorized individuals
D. Implementing intrusion detection software to alert security teams of unauthorized accessattempts
Answer: C
Explanation:
Deploying an additional layer of access controls to verify authorized individuals is the best
compensating control for the authentication vulnerability that could bypass the primary
control. A compensating control is a security measure that is implemented to mitigate the
risk of a vulnerability or a threat when the primary control is not sufficient or feasible. A
compensating control should provide a similar or greater level of protection as the primary
control, and should be closely related to the vulnerability or the threat it is addressing1. In
this case, the primary control is to restrict access to a sensitive database, and the
vulnerability is an authentication bypass. Therefore, the best compensating control is to
deploy an additional layer of access controls, such as multifactor authentication, role-based
access control, or encryption, to verify the identity and the authorization of the individuals
who are accessing the database. This way, the compensating control can prevent
unauthorized access to the database, even if the primary control is bypassed23. Running
regular penetration tests, conducting regular security awareness training, and implementing intrusion detection software are all good security practices, but they are not compensating
controls for the authentication vulnerability, as they do not provide a similar or greater level
of protection as the primary control, and they are not closely related to the vulnerability or
the threat they are addressing. References: Compensating Controls: An Impermanent
Solution to an IT … - Tripwire, What is Multifactor Authentication (MFA)? | Duo Security,
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) and Role-Based Security, [What is a Penetration Test
and How Does It Work?]
Question # 5
A Chief Information Security Officer has outlined several requirements for a newvulnerability scanning project:. Must use minimal network bandwidth. Must use minimal host resources. Must provide accurate, near real-time updates. Must not have any stored credentials in configuration on the scannerWhich of the following vulnerability scanning methods should be used to best meet theserequirements?
A. Internal
B. Agent
C. Active
D. Uncredentialed
Answer: B
Explanation: Agent-based vulnerability scanning is a method that uses software agents
installed on the target systems to scan for vulnerabilities. This method meets the
requirements of the project because it uses minimal network bandwidth and host
resources, provides accurate and near real-time updates, and does not require any stored
credentials on the scanner. References: What Is Vulnerability Scanning? Types, Tools and
Best Practices, Section: Types of vulnerability scanning; CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide:
A security alert was triggered when an end user tried to access a website that is notallowed per organizational policy. Since the action is considered a terminable offense, theSOC analyst collects the authentication logs, web logs, and temporary files, reflecting the web searches from the user's workstation, to build the case for the investigation. Which ofthe following is the best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacypolicies?
A. Create a timeline of events detailinq the date stamps, user account hostname and IPinformation associated with the activities
B. Ensure that the case details do not reflect any user-identifiable information Passwordprotect the evidence and restrict access to personnel related to the investigation
C. Create a code name for the investigation in the ticketing system so that all personnelwith access will not be able to easily identity the case as an HR-related investigation
D. Notify the SOC manager for awareness after confirmation that the activity wasintentional
Answer: B
Explanation: The best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacy
policies is to ensure that the case details do not reflect any user-identifiable information,
such as name, email address, phone number, or employee ID. This can help protect the
privacy and confidentiality of the user and prevent any potential discrimination or retaliation.
Additionally, password protecting the evidence and restricting access to personnel related
to the investigation can help preserve the integrity and security of the evidence and prevent
any unauthorized or accidental disclosure or modification.
Question # 7
A cybersecurity analyst is recording the following details* ID* Name* Description* Classification of information* Responsible partyIn which of the following documents is the analyst recording this information?
A. Risk register
B. Change control documentation
C. Incident response playbook
D. Incident response plan
Answer: A
Explanation: A risk register typically contains details like ID, name, description,
classification of information, and responsible party. It’s used for tracking identified risks and
managing them.Recording details like ID, Name, Description, Classification of information,
and Responsible party is typically done in a Risk Register. This document is used to
identify, assess, manage, and monitor risks within an organization. It's not directly related
to incident response or change control documentation.
Question # 8
The Chief Information Security Officer is directing a new program to reduce attack surfacerisks and threats as part of a zero trust approach. The IT security team is required to comeup with priorities for the program. Which of the following is the best priority based oncommon attack frameworks?
A. Reduce the administrator and privileged access accounts
B. Employ a network-based IDS
C. Conduct thorough incident response
D. Enable SSO to enterprise applications
Answer: A
Explanation: The best priority based on common attack frameworks for a new program to
reduce attack surface risks and threats as part of a zero trust approach is to reduce the
administrator and privileged access accounts. Administrator and privileged access
accounts are accounts that have elevated permissions or capabilities to perform sensitive or critical tasks on systems or networks, such as installing software, changing
configurations, accessing data, or granting access. Reducing the administrator and
privileged access accounts can help minimize the attack surface, as it can limit the number
of potential targets or entry points for attackers, as well as reduce the impact or damage of
an attack if an account is compromised.
Question # 9
Which of the following threat-modeling procedures is in the OWASP Web Security TestingGuide?
A. Review Of security requirements
B. Compliance checks
C. Decomposing the application
D. Security by design
Answer: C
Explanation:
The OWASP Web Security Testing Guide (WSTG) includes a section on threat modeling,
which is a structured approach to identify, quantify, and address the security risks
associated with an application. The first step in the threat modeling process is
decomposing the application, which involves creating use cases, identifying entry points,
assets, trust levels, and data flow diagrams for the application. This helps to understand
the application and how it interacts with external entities, as well as to identify potential
threats and vulnerabilities1. The other options are not part of the OWASP WSTG threat
modeling process.
Question # 10
During an incident, a security analyst discovers a large amount of Pll has been emailedexternally from an employee to a public email address. The analyst finds that the externalemail is the employee'spersonal email. Which of the following should the analyst recommend be done first?
A. Place a legal hold on the employee's mailbox.
B. Enable filtering on the web proxy.
C. Disable the public email access with CASB.
D. Configure a deny rule on the firewall.
Answer: A
Explanation: Placing a legal hold on the employee’s mailbox is the best action to perform
first, as it preserves all mailbox content, including deleted items and original versions of
modified items, for potential legal or forensic purposes. A legal hold is a feature that allows
an administrator to retain mailbox data for a user indefinitely or for a specified period,
regardless of the user’s actions or retention policies. A legal hold can be applied to a
mailbox using Litigation Hold or In-Place Hold in Exchange Server or Exchange Online. A
legal hold can help to ensure that evidence of data exfiltration or other malicious activities
is not lost or tampered with, and that the organization can comply with any legal or
regulatory obligations. The other actions are not as urgent or effective as placing a legal
hold on the employee’s mailbox, as they do not address the immediate threat of data loss
or compromise. Enabling filtering on the web proxy may help to prevent some types of data
exfiltration or malicious traffic, but it does not help to recover or preserve the data that has
already been emailed externally. Disabling the public email access with CASB (Cloud
Access Security Broker) may help to block or monitor the use of public email services by
employees, but it does not help to recover or preserve the data that has already been
emailed externally. Configuring a deny rule on the firewall may help to block or monitor the
network traffic from the employee’s laptop, but it does not help to recover or preserve the
data that has already been emailed externally.
Question # 11
A systems administrator notices unfamiliar directory names on a production server. Theadministrator reviews the directory listings and files, and then concludes the server hasbeencompromised. Which of the following steps should the administrator take next?
A. Inform the internal incident response team.
B. Follow the company's incident response plan.
C. Review the lessons learned for the best approach.
D. Determine when the access started.
Answer: B
Explanation: An incident response plan is a set of predefined procedures and guidelines
that an organization follows when faced with a security breach or attack. An incident
response plan helps to ensure that the organization can quickly and effectively contain,
analyze, eradicate, and recover from the incident, as well as prevent or minimize the
damage and impact to the business operations, reputation, and customers. An incident
response plan also defines the roles and responsibilities of the incident response team, the
communication channels and protocols, the escalation and reporting procedures, and the
tools and resources available for the incident response.
By following the company’s incident response plan, the administrator can ensure that they
are following the best practices and standards for handling a security incident, and that
they are coordinating and collaborating with the relevant stakeholders and authorities.
Following the company’s incident response plan can also help to avoid or reduce any legal,
regulatory, or contractual liabilities or penalties that may arise from the incident.
The other options are not as effective or appropriate as following the company’s incident
response plan. Informing the internal incident response team (A) is a good step, but it
should be done according to the company’s incident response plan, which may specify
who, when, how, and what to report. Reviewing the lessons learned for the best approach
during the active response phase. Determining when the access started (D) is a good step,
but it should be done as part of the analysis phase of the incident response plan, not before
following the plan.
Question # 12
After a security assessment was done by a third-party consulting firm, the cybersecurityprogram recommended integrating DLP and CASB to reduce analyst alert fatigue. Which ofthe following is the best possible outcome that this effort hopes to achieve?
A. SIEM ingestion logs are reduced by 20%.
B. Phishing alerts drop by 20%.
C. False positive rates drop to 20%.
D. The MTTR decreases by 20%.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The MTTR (Mean Time to Resolution) decreases by 20% is the best possible outcome that
this effort hopes to achieve, as it reflects the improvement in the efficiency and
effectiveness of the incident response process by reducing analyst alert fatigue. Analyst
alert fatigue is a term that refers to the phenomenon of security analysts becoming
overwhelmed, desensitized, or exhausted by the large number of alerts they receive from
various security tools or systems, such as DLP (Data Loss Prevention) or CASB (Cloud
Access Security Broker). DLP is a security solution that helps to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data, such as personal information, intellectual
property, or financial records. CASB is a security solution that helps to monitor and control
the use of cloud-based applications and services, such as SaaS (Software as a Service),
PaaS (Platform as a Service), or IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service). Both DLP and CASB
can generate alerts when they detect potential data breaches, policy violations, or
malicious activities, but they can also produce false positives, irrelevant information, or
duplicate notifications that can overwhelm or distract the security analysts. Analyst alert
fatigue can have negative consequences for the security posture and performance of an
organization, such as missing or ignoring critical alerts, delaying or skipping investigations
or remediations, making errors or mistakes, or losing motivation or morale. Therefore, it is
important to reduce analyst alert fatigue and optimize the alert management process by
using various strategies, such as tuning the alert thresholds and rules, prioritizing and
triaging the alerts based on severity and context, enriching and correlating the alerts with
additional data sources, automating or orchestrating repetitive or low-level tasks or actions,
or integrating and consolidating different security tools or systems into a unified platform.
By reducing analyst alert fatigue and optimizing the alert management process, the effort
hopes to achieve a decrease in the MTTR, which is a metric that measures the average
time it takes to resolve an incident from the moment it is reported to the moment it is
closed. A lower MTTR indicates a faster and more effective incident response process,
which can help to minimize the impact and damage of security incidents, improve customer
satisfaction and trust, and enhance security operations and outcomes. The other options
are not as relevant or realistic as the MTTR decreases by 20%, as they do not reflect the
best possible outcome that this effort hopes to achieve. SIEM ingestion logs are reduced
by 20% is not a relevant outcome, as it does not indicate any improvement in the incident
response process or any reduction in analyst alert fatigue. SIEM (Security Information and
Event Management) is a security solution that collects and analyzes data from various
sources, such as logs, events, or alerts, and provides security monitoring, threat detection,
and incident response capabilities. SIEM ingestion logs are records of the data that is
ingested by the SIEM system from different sources. Reducing SIEM ingestion logs may
imply less data volume or less data sources for the SIEM system, which may not
necessarily improve its performance or accuracy. Phishing alerts drop by 20% is not a
realistic outcome, as it does not depend on the integration of DLP and CASB or any
reduction in analyst alert fatigue. Phishing alerts are notifications that indicate potential
phishing attempts or attacks, such as fraudulent emails, websites, or messages that try to
trick users into revealing sensitive information or installing malware. Phishing alerts can be
generated by various security tools or systems, such as email security solutions, web
security solutions, endpoint security solutions, or user awareness training programs.
Reducing phishing alerts may imply less phishing attempts or attacks on the organization,
which may not necessarily be influenced by the integration of DLP and CASB or any
reduction in analyst alert fatigue. False positive rates drop to 20% is not a realistic outcome
Question # 13
A security analyst needs to secure digital evidence related to an incident. The securityanalyst must ensure that the accuracy of the data cannot be repudiated. Which of thefollowing should be implemented?
A. Offline storage
B. Evidence collection
C. Integrity validation
D. Legal hold
Answer: C
Explanation:
Integrity validation is the process of ensuring that the digital evidence has not been altered
or tampered with during collection, acquisition, preservation, or analysis. It usually involves
generating and verifying cryptographic hashes of the evidence, such as MD5 or SHA-1.
Integrity validation is essential for maintaining the accuracy and admissibility of the digital
evidence in court.
Question # 14
During a security test, a security analyst found a critical application with a buffer overflowvulnerability. Which of the following would be best to mitigate the vulnerability at theapplication level?
A. Perform OS hardening.
B. Implement input validation.
C. Update third-party dependencies.
D. Configure address space layout randomization.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Implementing input validation is the best way to mitigate the buffer overflow vulnerability at
the application level. Input validation is a technique that checks the data entered by users
or attackers against a set of rules or constraints, such as data type, length, format, or
range. Input validation can prevent common web application attacks such as SQL injection,
cross-site scripting (XSS), or command injection, which exploit the lack of input validation
to execute malicious code or commands on the server or the client side. By validating the
input before allowing submission, the web application can reject or sanitize any malicious
or unexpected input, and protect the application from being compromised12. References:
How to detect, prevent, and mitigate buffer overflow attacks - Synopsys, How to mitigate
buffer overflow vulnerabilities | Infosec
Question # 15
Which of the following would an organization use to develop a business continuity plan?
A. A diagram of all systems and interdependent applications
B. A repository for all the software used by the organization
C. A prioritized list of critical systems defined by executive leadership
D. A configuration management database in print at an off-site location
Answer: C
Explanation:
A prioritized list of critical systems defined by executive leadership is the best option to use
to develop a business continuity plan. A business continuity plan (BCP) is a system of
prevention and recovery from potential threats to a company. The plan ensures that
personnel and assets are protected and are able to function quickly in the event of a
disaster1. A BCP should include a business impact analysis, which identifies the critical
systems and processes that are essential for the continuity of the business operations, and
the potential impacts of their disruption2. The executive leadership should be involved in
defining the critical systems and their priorities, as they have the strategic vision and
authority to make decisions that affect the whole organization3. A diagram of all systems
and interdependent applications, a repository for all the software used by the organization,
and a configuration management database in print at an off-site location are all useful tools for documenting and managing the IT infrastructure, but they are not sufficient to develop a
comprehensive BCP that covers all aspects of the business continuity4. References: What
Is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP), and How Does It Work?, Business continuity plan
(BCP) in 8 steps, with templates, Business continuity planning | Business Queensland,
Understanding the Essentials of a Business Continuity Plan
FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS
Security+ is your foundation—think broad basics—while CS0-003 dives into analysis, like dissecting logs or hunting threats, taking you a step deeper.
The exam has been updated to include the latest trends in cybersecurity, such as software and application security, automation, threat hunting, and regulatory compliance.
The exam tests skills such as leveraging intelligence and threat detection techniques, analyzing and interpreting data, identifying and addressing vulnerabilities, suggesting preventative measures, and effectively responding to and recovering from incidents.
It’s all over cloud breaches and automation—like spotting ransomware in a hybrid setup—keeping you current, not stuck in 2010.
You’ll weigh tough calls—like reporting a breach fully or quietly patching—testing your gut on doing right under pressure.
Yep—if you’re in support or admin, it’s your bridge to analyst roles, adding threat skills to your toolkit without a full career swap.
Benefits include enhanced career prospects, recognition by major cybersecurity organizations and government agencies, and the ability to validate one's skills in proactive defense and security analysis.
